Why does "none" has "one" in it? Does "none" really exist then?

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2007-09-30 00:07:57 · 6 answers · asked by Anonymous in Entertainment & Music ➔ Polls & Surveys

That's bad logic. You know that, right?

2007-09-30 00:17:12 · answer #1 · answered by Mickey Mouse Spears 7 · 0⤊ 1⤋

The letter n negates the word one. It's like 0 times 1 = 0.

2007-09-30 00:21:14 · answer #2 · answered by AxisofOddity 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋

It does

2007-09-30 00:18:22 · answer #3 · answered by Mag 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋

It does.

2007-09-30 00:10:32 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋

its a word
live with it

2007-09-30 00:12:23 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋

"nothing" has "thing" in it.....odd...

2007-09-30 00:14:10 · answer #6 · answered by ~JennyBunny~ 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋