If you are using a router odds are you will have a local ip of 192.168..0.0-192.168.255.255 and the NAT in the router translates to your actuall IP assigned by the ISP
but if you just have a modem you do not have the private ip of 192 do you???? just the ISP ip correct?
2007-09-29 07:36:49 · 3 answers · asked by Anonymous in Computers & Internet ➔ Computer Networking
Well, it all depends on the modem. Some of the new smart ones will issue NATed IP's to your computer and behave as a router. Some are simply bridges which pass a public IP to your computer. SO what band and model of modem? Look it up on the manufacturers website and see it if supports NAT. If it does you will get a private IP off of it. Some of the Speed streams used by AT&T have this "feature" and some don't. I have two lines on one office of ours. One line has a modem that does not NAT the other has one that does. On the one that does NAT, you can login and turn off the function!
Check the MODEM and its documents.
2007-09-29 08:25:29 · answer #1 · answered by Tracy L 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
With a router its external interface gets the public (ISP assigned) IP. With a modem only the computer attached to it gets the public IP. So, yes, basically you are correct.
Now, that computer could be doing NAT. In other other words it could be set up as router and all the machines connected to it would have to have private IPs.
2007-09-29 15:02:50 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋
If you have a usb modem, it gets an IP from the ISP and this becomes the PC's IP address. If using a LAN cable connected modem, you still have different public and private addresses.
2007-09-29 14:58:51 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋