For my theatre/English class for an online class for college I had to read plays and literature from Ancient Greece and Rome and other periods. What I noticed was that beautiful and handsome was used interchangeably between the sexes. There was a part where a woman's features were handsome and beautiful for man. But these were compliments, therefore, it seems that both meant good looking and weren't specific in the type of good looks. So it made me wonder what caused these terms to be associated as we do in modern times. For example, we associate beautiful with soft delicate, pretty, elegant features, therefore, this can be used for men, but mostly it's associated with women, since these adjectives sound feminine. And handsome is associated with good looks with symmetry, but stunning and attractive in a bolder way, or sublime beauty I guess. Since men have more prominent features, this term associates best with men and masculinity.
2007-09-27
19:20:49
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2 answers
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asked by
Brennan Huff
5
in
Society & Culture
➔ Other - Society & Culture
So what I wonder and ask is what era did this really start to come about with such associations, thus the terms beginning to become more gender specific? And is there a historical reason to why the perception came about and became ingrained to think or imagine things in such specific descriptions as opposed to just good looking whether it is soft, hard, graceful, prominent, etc? I’m just curious to how this came about or if there is a reason behind this relative to events during a certain time period that just carried over from there, thus becoming how we associate the terms in modern times. Just wondering if anyone knew and if not what your theories to this are or throw in thoughts or ideas to this at least.
2007-09-27
19:21:35 ·
update #1