2007-09-27 15:31:02 · 12 answers · asked by Anonymous in Politics & Government ➔ Government
None, when enactedt he income tax did not require Constitutional amendment . The federal income tax was established via Congressional legislation authorized by Congress' Constitutional authority to levy taxes and empower the Executive branch to collect said taxes.
The 16th amendment was actually only to clarify HOW federal income tax was to be levied on a statewide basis in response to several federal lawsuits regarding inequality under the law. In essence, it leveled the playing field and prevented further legal action.
And no, it's not an illegal tax as much as I would like it to be; it could be more fairly administered, though.
2007-09-27 15:44:33 · answer #1 · answered by Cappo359 7 · 2⤊ 2⤋
The 16th Amendment. Prior attempts at a *personal* income tax were struck down in 1895 in a case called: Pollock :vs: Farmers Loan & Trust. Income taxes placed on corporate entities were judged as constitutionally acceptable (1909) after the Pollock decision and prior to the offering of the 16th Amendment. (1913) The first major Supreme Court test of the 16th Amendment, in which the constitutional authority was affirmed, was Brushaber :vs: Union Pacific Railroad Co. (1916).
The history surrounding the creation and ratification of the 16th Amendment will give you considerable background into the "reasons of the realm" that were useful in getting the requisite number of state legislatures to ratify it.
Mexican girl with a blonde's mind......that's rich. :)
2007-09-27 15:48:18 · answer #2 · answered by Don C 3 · 0⤊ 3⤋
16.
Constitution originally said there could be no direct tax. Then, in 1895 the income tax at that time was ruled unconstitutional. The 16th amendment amended the constitution so there could be a direct tax on income.
2007-09-27 15:36:02 · answer #3 · answered by Roy 6 · 1⤊ 3⤋
The 16th Amendment states that "The Congress shall have power to lay and collect taxes on incomes, from whatever source derived, without apportionment among the several States, and without regard to any census or enumeration."
2007-09-27 15:35:31 · answer #4 · answered by Dean 2 · 0⤊ 2⤋
Amendment XVI
The Congress shall have power to lay and collect taxes on incomes, from whatever source derived, without apportionment among the several states, and without regard to any census or enumeration.
2007-09-27 15:35:27 · answer #5 · answered by DaveNCUSA 7 · 0⤊ 2⤋
The 28th amendment -- it was established a few minutes ago when you were asking another homework question.
2007-09-27 15:33:18 · answer #6 · answered by Glen B 6 · 1⤊ 2⤋
16th Amendment.
2007-09-27 15:35:44 · answer #7 · answered by krollohare2 7 · 1⤊ 2⤋
There is no Constitutional basis for the US federal income tax.
It's totally illegal, but I wouldn't recommend you stop paying it.
2007-09-27 15:35:11 · answer #8 · answered by nora22000 7 · 0⤊ 6⤋
16. You could have googled it.
2007-09-27 15:35:38 · answer #9 · answered by ? 6 · 1⤊ 2⤋
16th
2007-09-27 15:33:31 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 2⤊ 2⤋