The chances are equal
2007-09-27 07:53:15
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answer #1
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answered by Ramanna 2
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A. 32 12 23 7 15 3
2007-09-27 18:57:05
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answer #2
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answered by •·.·´¯`·.·•·.·´¯`·.·• 4
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While odds state that the answer is C (the odds are equal), 2 things come to mind:
1) When has a lotto EVER been 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 (or however many that specific lotto has) ?
2) I would check the last couple of lotto drawings, to get a feel for what numbers have been drawn recently. By laws of averages, the numbers not drawn recently are 'more likely' to be drawn- that's specifically a psychological debate (math is unrelated)
2007-09-27 07:58:24
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answer #3
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answered by SkiBum 4
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The answer is c.
In the process of selecting a ball, once a specific number is chosen, all the remaining balls have an equal chance of being chosen regardless of whether a previous sequential number was chosen. Thus, is a 3 was the first ball, 1 or 2 could be next or 31or 32 They would all have an equal chance of being drawn.
Hope this helps.
2007-09-27 07:58:07
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answer #4
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answered by pyz01 7
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I dont know if you noticed but A has 6 number and B has 7 numbers. If that is the case then A has more chances since it has one less number however if the original sets both have the same amount of numbers in them then the chances are equal.
2007-09-27 07:55:44
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answer #5
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answered by petep73 3
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the answer is c because the probability between each number is the same. It's not more likely to have 1 or 2 or any number
2007-09-27 07:53:15
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answer #6
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answered by Orfeas 3
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C. The chances are equal.
2007-09-27 07:57:19
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answer #7
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answered by Mary 1
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"C". The probability of any number to come up should be equal, unless the equipment is faulty.
2007-09-27 13:52:42
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answer #8
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answered by keylauder 2
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I'D GO WITH A
2007-09-27 07:56:13
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answer #9
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answered by Effie 2
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A
2007-09-27 07:53:27
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answer #10
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answered by Anonymous
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