I'm trying to formulate some points and all of my research is just going in one ear and out the other! So far I have "The media is biased due to media conglomeration"
and I want to say Radio has an obligation to operate in the public interest. and that the F.D. doesn't violate the first amendmetns but I don't think I'll have much support on the first one and as for the first amendment...well I think thats more of a defense and i'm first speaker.
2007-09-26 12:36:48 · 2 answers · asked by kadmarco 4 in Politics & Government ➔ Politics
The decision was made that the airwaves belong to the public - in much the same way that the air does. The fact that someone paid to make use of it does not give them ownership, just usage.
The fairness doctrine makes sure that this commonly held asset is not used to unfairly attack or lobby against others without the others being allowed to respond. It only requires that a response must be aired when it is used against someone or some group - so the idea that it is curbing free speech is nonsense.
2007-09-26 14:06:44 · answer #1 · answered by oohhbother 7 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Defending this doctrine is not easy. Because radio does not have an obligation to public interests. People pay money to set up radio stations, pay taxes to the Government, abide by government rules set in place by the FCC, and risk loosing money, via advertisement, if people don't like what they hear and turn the radio off.
So, that argument is pretty weak and a skilled debater can call you on it. Personally, I wouldn't want your position and I can understand your frustration in finding info that is on your side, because even many on the left think the Fairness Doctrine is wrong because it would also harm their efforts to get their ideas across. But good luck.
Um, maybe add some more details on how you want to defend your opinion and I can try to help you with it.
2007-09-26 13:06:34 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋