This is exactly what the second amendment says: "A well regulated Militia, being necessary to the security of a free State, the right of the people to keep and bear Arms, shall not be infringed."
Why do conservatives seem to conveniently forget the first part of the sentence? Doesn't this amendment mean that Congress cannot prevent a State from arming it's citizens in order to form, not a "militia," not even a "regulated militia," but a "well regulated militia." It seems to me that not only does this amendment allow for gun control, but in fact, it encourages it. Interpreting this amendment to mean that any citizen (or non-felon) has a Constititional right to own and/or carry a gun is preposterous.
2007-09-26
10:53:37
·
8 answers
·
asked by
Stephen L
6
in
Politics & Government
➔ Law & Ethics
Er, ggraves: I know conservatives/republicans are against gun control. That's why when they talk about the second amendment, they conveniently leave out the part about States forming a "well regulated militia." Perhaps you need to read my question again.
2007-09-26
11:04:01 ·
update #1