If a deaf person goes to court is it still considered a hearing?
2007-09-26 09:40:56 · 9 answers · asked by Alberto Inestine 2 in Politics & Government ➔ Law & Ethics
Did you know that Abraham Lincoln once posed this question?
It was old, then.
2007-09-26 09:44:43 · answer #1 · answered by open4one 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
It's not about the person, it's about the Judge.
If the Judge is deaf, then it's a liberal court. If he is blind, then it is a conservative court. If he is absent minded, then it is moderate court.
:)
2007-09-26 10:54:35 · answer #2 · answered by Just David 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
If a tree falls in a forest and no one is around to hear it, does it make a sound?
What is the sound of one hand clapping?
http://www.spectacle.org/396/scifi/tree.html
Yes, it is still called a hearing. LOL
2007-09-26 09:49:45 · answer #3 · answered by Serena 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yes, because the court will hear them (or the sign language interpreter), even if they do not hear it.
2007-09-26 10:08:45 · answer #4 · answered by StephenWeinstein 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
if you can't perform your civil duty due to physical problems you don't have to go to the court, its a perfectly good explanation
2007-09-26 09:49:58 · answer #5 · answered by SiberiaROCKS 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
You're the one who put dic in the dictionary...
2007-09-26 09:56:03 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
yes
2007-09-26 09:46:23 · answer #7 · answered by ~Jen~ 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Have you heard of homonyms?
2007-09-26 10:25:19 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
That's mean...but really really funny.
2007-09-26 09:44:43 · answer #9 · answered by Black Star Deceiver 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋