English Deutsch Français Italiano Español Português 繁體中文 Bahasa Indonesia Tiếng Việt ภาษาไทย
All categories

2007-09-24 18:47:15 · 3 answers · asked by horse 2 in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

Show culculation please .

2007-09-24 19:12:48 · update #1

3 answers

I am assuming that (0-pi/2) means (0,pi/2)
y = sin4x goes through one complete cycle for x going from 0 to pi/2. The area above the axis equals the area below so the area between the x-axis and the sine wave is zero.

If area is considered to be positive, as when you are going to paint the area,

Area = 2 x integral of sin4x from 0 to pi/4 = 2 x -[ -1/4 - 1/4]= 1

2007-10-02 17:53:21 · answer #1 · answered by Jeffrey D 2 · 0 0

The total area is 1 because

area between 0 - pi/4 = 1/2 above x axis
area between pi/4 - pi/2 =1/2 below x axis

2007-09-24 19:04:51 · answer #2 · answered by Seto 2 · 0 0

Off hand, I'd expect an area of zero, since in a pi/2 interval, sin4x will have one full cycle.

2007-09-24 18:51:11 · answer #3 · answered by cattbarf 7 · 0 0

fedest.com, questions and answers