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If you file for divorce on the grounds of adultry, what does that really mean for your spouse? I mean do they have to pay a fine or get a stern talking to by the judge? What? Is the purpose of filing on grounds of adultry just to bring it to light that your spouse cheated?

2007-09-24 14:57:39 · 25 answers · asked by cris 2 in Family & Relationships Marriage & Divorce

25 answers

No.

Adultery is the only reason God gives for divorce. If your spouse has not committed adultery and you divorce them, then anyone you are with after him you are committing adultery with and you cause them to also commit adultery.

2007-09-24 15:07:15 · answer #1 · answered by Sweet Suzy 777! 7 · 0 1

In the US and in state of New Jersey, there is no fault divorce now.. Adultry is rarely used anymore..Basically because it's hard to prove.. It you have actual proof, like pictures of the spouse and other party "in action" then you can file for that reason if you want. The court doesn't much care who did what anymore, but if you had pictures of them to prove it, a Judge is only human and may award you more alimony or assets if he feels the other party was very wrong..As a rule, just filing for no fault is the easiest and best way to go. In NJ, you must be separated and live apart for 6 months (was recently changed to this time) instead of 18 months, and then one or the other party can file for a no fault divorce. The defendant can always contest it if they choose to, but for the most part a waste of time and money, since the divorce will go through anyhow.. And no, the Judge will not give the person at fault a stern talking to.. All he is there for is to legally grant the divorce..Sorry, but the legal system is not really into scolding anyone for their behavior, only to take care of the case as such.. Hope this helps and good luck..

2007-09-24 15:22:49 · answer #2 · answered by Joanie 5 · 0 0

you can't
most states ( in USA ) are no fault states ( you can thank the feminists for that one ), and thus adultery cannot be used ( not that the court cares anyways ), you can only use the irreconcilable differences or fraud check box on the paperwork, one or the other.
99.99% use irreconcilable differences as that covers pretty much anything ( including falling out of love ), since the dissolution of marriage process ( what divorce really is ) faults neither party, it's just a matter of who files first, as in divorce one party SUES the other for dissolution of marriage.. any why would it be sue.. ? because marriage ( as the states see it ) is a MERGER between 2 sole entities ( self corporations ) into one new one ( hence why you need license to get married ), and when the merger fails, like business, the assets are divided, and like business one party sues the other for the assets. the judge cares not about the grounds, his hands are tied, his only purpose is to see the dissolution through to the end and render a fair judgement for the parties. he cannot stop the process, he must follow through by law.

2007-09-24 15:09:30 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

This is just an explanation of why the petitioner (person seeking the divorce) wants a divorce. It may effect the outcome of any disputed property, valuables etc-depending on the judge. I've never heard of anyone being fined for adultry, but they should be.

2007-09-24 15:06:38 · answer #4 · answered by shes_marie77 2 · 0 0

Not every state offers those grounds, but for those that do, it's just a word play to tell the truth. It doesn't look worse on the spouse, and nothing happens (like fines) or anything else....it's just a word on the final decree if it's granted that way. The best thing to do is just get it over with, and move on with an abundant life, instead of wanting him to pay, because Karma has a funny way of doing that for you, Sweetheart.

2007-09-24 15:03:52 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

All that does is embarrass the husband on paper.Years ago if you use adultery as grounds you better prove it like name the woman the times and dates and you better have pictures.Now because that is done all the time cheating that is the courts won't hear of it. It's still a mans world and men make the rules unfortunately for us women. Isn't it funny how men think they are getting the s h i t y end of the stick. They are getting just a taste of what we women have be dealing with sense the beginning of time. Men don't like it.!!!

2007-09-24 15:15:22 · answer #6 · answered by Teenie 7 · 0 0

Using adultery as grounds for divorce, ,means just that, it is grounds for getting a divorce, it really doesn't mean much in that he will not get a fine or anything. It is just one of the grounds that can be used to justify divorce

2007-09-24 15:07:21 · answer #7 · answered by Jon S 1 · 0 0

None of the above. Judge dont care if hubbies been a Bad Boy. BUT. You will have to name the co-respondent. She may not like that.

I allowed my ex-wife to file for divorce on the above grounds, even tho it was HER that had firts chosen another guy. My current g/f had to be named as co-respondent. It went amicably enough, but g/f was NOT too pleased!

2007-09-24 15:06:33 · answer #8 · answered by bak2deefuture 3 · 0 0

In Maryland, it really has no bearing on the divorce proceedings. I had video tape of my ex's vehicle at this womans house in the middle of the night for a few nights in a row and it wasn't even used in the divorce. They really don't care about that, but it may depend on where you live. I did it as a back up.

2007-09-24 16:27:30 · answer #9 · answered by 2008girl 3 · 0 0

Fidelity is part of the marriage contract.....If a spouse commits adultery they've broken the contract. Filing on ground of adultery is asking the court to recognise that one party to the contract of marriage has broken that contract...divorce, in effect, sets aside a contract which has been broken by one of the parties to it!

2007-09-24 15:07:20 · answer #10 · answered by cautious 3 · 0 0

Hopefully you don't live in Nevada because that's not a grounds for divorce. If not, it means that he is irresponsible and doesn't deserve much out of the divorce, because he's not really acting like he is married.

2007-09-24 15:02:58 · answer #11 · answered by Lovebug123 5 · 0 0

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