Like do people have sexual fetishes typically because they are abused.
2007-09-21 06:14:17 · 4 answers · asked by crymeariver 5 in Social Science ➔ Psychology
Not always no-but it can be a factor.
2007-09-21 06:30:18 · answer #1 · answered by KAREBEAR 6 · 2⤊ 0⤋
I don't think celibacy plays that much of a role. I've known priests that had sexual relations with women, with other grown men. And I'm sure many of them just masturbate a lot. The celibacy thing came about in the 13th century. They no longer wanted a woman's influence on the priest,or any of the clergy. It saved them an enormous amount of money, not supporting whole family's, and at the time, being homosexual was prevalent. Almost all of the canonized saints during that period where self professed homosexuals. Over time it became a haven for pedophiles, which brings us up to today. Over the past few decades, the Catholic Church has paid out around 1.5 billion dollars to people that where abused by priests. Personally, I don't think they should be allowed to claim bankruptcy. It's not like they pay taxes. They just rob all the money from the diocese that the people have given them.
2016-05-20 01:39:42 · answer #2 · answered by ? 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No. I have lots of fetishes and I was never abused. My partners have had fetishes and were never abused. I'm not sure where you got that correlation. Could this be the real reason why you are not going to bed with your husband? He has a fetish that makes you uncomfortable?
2007-09-21 06:33:36 · answer #3 · answered by meagain 4 · 1⤊ 1⤋
I have a lot of sexual fetishes and have never been abused.
2007-09-21 08:26:32 · answer #4 · answered by TroubleRose 6 · 1⤊ 0⤋