Three times 1/3 equals one. 1/3 represented as a decimal is .333333333 etc. So does .99 equal 1?
2007-09-20 16:51:05 · 11 answers · asked by Archimedes 1 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Mathematics
No. 0.9999....repeating infinitely is equal to 1 (if you want a proof, let me know)
0.99 = 99/100
1 = 100/100
So 0.99 ≠ 1
2007-09-20 16:54:42 · answer #1 · answered by whitesox09 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
.99 does not equal 1
3 * 1/3 = 1
This is because 1/3 is more accurate than .33 repeating
2007-09-20 16:55:37 · answer #2 · answered by Aaron 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
.99 is close to one. .999 is closer to one and the more you put into . 99 is one but as it's written .99 doesn't equal one no here we have a third and a comparison with three thirds right but as written .99 is not the same as .99 repeating after all the point to made is are three thirds equal to one and they are right but ninety-nine one hundreds is not even close to one it's far away like on the other side of the moon if you were aiming at this planet.
2007-09-20 17:07:57 · answer #3 · answered by The Coroner of China 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
0.99999999 isn't equal to one.
because 1/3 x 3 is always equal to 1
but if you are using a calculator then there is an error because calculator has limited number of digits.
1/3 = 0.3333333333....with out end
if you divide 1 /3 with a calculator then the answer is 0.3333333333..., the number of digits depends on the calculator you are using and then multiplying it by 3 then you are not consistent with the correct equation because you are now multiplying 0.333333333 (the calculator has 10 digits) with 3 and it is not equivalent to 1/3 x 3.
2007-09-20 18:26:48 · answer #4 · answered by jerriel 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
.99 does not equal 1 no, but .9999999999 repeated forever does. I assume this is what you meant. To see why let's call .9999 repeated .99|
if we let x = .99|
then 10x = 9.99|
Now let's try and find the value for 9x. To do this we can simply subtract x from 10x.
10x = 9.99|
- x = .99|
9x= 9.00
Now we can see that if 9x = 9.00, x indeed equals 1.
2007-09-20 17:03:05 · answer #5 · answered by Gareth C 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No, because 1/3 cannot be expressed as a decimal, since you would have to write an infinite number of 3's.
2007-09-20 16:54:56 · answer #6 · answered by streetballa935 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No. Unless it is rounded up to the nearest whole number.
Otherwise it is simply just .99. Try to associate it with something like money for example. If you owed .99 cents and paid with a whole dollar, (1.00), then you would be getting change back of a whopping .01 cent. Granted, a penny saved is a penny earned, but it takes a heck of a lot of "earned pennies" to amount to anything. And I would save that penny, .01, because who knows maybe one day they do away with pennies entirely,so in a couple hundred years maybe that penny is worth a dollar. Then the answer to your question would be a definite "yes", but for now I'm sorry to say, it's stiull a "no":.
2007-09-20 17:06:41 · answer #7 · answered by themadscientist001 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Well, .99 doesn't, but .999999999..... does (which is what you meant, I'm sure).
You can prove it by assuming that there .9999999999... does NOT equal 1, which means that you could squeeze a number in between the two, which of course is impossible.
Also, you can use the decimal to fraction method to see what fraction .9999999... represents:
if x = .99999999.....
10 x = 9.9999999999.....
10 x - x = (9.9999999... ) - ( .9999999...)
9 x = 9
x = 1
so, yes. .9999999999... = 1.0
2007-09-20 17:02:30 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Hello,
Let x = .999 repeating multiply by 10 giving us 10x = 9.999 repeating now subtract the first one from the second one and we have 9x = 9 or x = 1.
Hope This Helps!!
2007-09-20 16:56:53 · answer #9 · answered by CipherMan 5 · 1⤊ 0⤋
.99 doesn't equal one. It's not accurate enough.
2007-09-20 17:16:19 · answer #10 · answered by Zack Wilder 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋