Actually, ∀x, f_n(x)→0 as n→∞. Why? Because if x is 0, then f_n(x) is always 0. Conversely, if x≠0, then ∃N∈ℕ s.t. 1/N < x. Then ∀n>N, we have that f_n(x) = 0. In either case, f_n(x) eventually reaches 0 and stays there, so the limit is 0, and the pointwise limit of f_n is simply the zero function.
Remember, in finding the pointwise limit of a function at a given point, you pick a point x, and keep it there - the point x is quite fixed, and does not change with n, so in particular, setting x=1/n² is not valid, because that point changes with n.
As for the other parts:
#2: In this case, ∀n, f_n is bounded, and is discontinuous at only one point (namely, x=0). Therefore, it is Riemann integrable. Further, it is equal almost everywhere to the continuous function g_n(x) = {n-n²x if 0≤x≤1/n, 0 if 1/n≤x≤1} (indeed, it differs from it at only the point 0), so its integral is the same, and thus [0, 1]∫f_n = [0, 1]∫g_n = [0, 1/n]∫n-n²x dx + [1/n, 1]∫0 dx = nx-n²x²/2 |[0, 1/n] + 0 = n(1/n) - 1/2 n²(1/n)² = 1-1/2 = 1/2. This holds for all n, so we have that [n→∞]lim [0, 1]∫f_n = [n→∞]lim 1/2 = 1/2.
#3: Since the pointwise limit of the f_n is just the 0 function, we have that [0, 1]∫f = 0 ≠ 1/2.
2007-09-21 01:10:47
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answer #1
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answered by Pascal 7
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