2007-09-20 13:26:41 · 3 answers · asked by Anthony S 1 in Business & Finance ➔ Renting & Real Estate
What date was it signed? If signed on or about 3/1/07 it would be presumed to be a typo on the expiration date. Most likely the language stipulates the term of one year. One year from the date it was signed pretty solidly proves the intents of the parties if you tried to get out based upon this typo. The lease is almost certainly valid.
2007-09-20 13:33:37 · answer #1 · answered by Bostonian In MO 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
That would obviously be a typo. I'd contact the landlord and get it corrected, but you'd look pretty silly if you are planning to argue in court for example that you shouldn't be held to the lease beyond 2/28/07. And the landlord would look just as silly if he or she tried to argue that the least wasn't valid after 2/28/07.
2007-09-20 13:33:40 · answer #2 · answered by Judy 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
you're nevertheless in charge for the lease. possibly you should evaluate getting a sparkling roommate. Or, you need to sue your former roommate for her share of the lease. insupportable (or irreconcilable) changes do no longer permit her out of her share of the lease.
2016-11-06 00:00:04 · answer #3 · answered by ? 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋