wife's if they commit adultery and the Indians from India burn they wife's alive if they commit adultery too , well , and why all of those people can come to USA and get they status as Americans and there is such much noise about OJ Simpson killing his wife in case he did it when all the others are allowed to do in they countries ?
OJ Simpson proved to be innocent any way and in this case he was just wanting his property back that those pople stole from him , and that it's the nasty in this case , yes , they are the ones who committed a crime and not OJ in any case !
2007-09-20 10:19:47 · 16 answers · asked by Orestes A 1 in Politics & Government ➔ Law & Ethics
So if I decide to go out and kill a rapist it is really his fault for being a criminal and not mine for acting outside the law????
2007-09-20 10:23:50 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 2⤊ 0⤋
OJ was found criminally "not guilty" (as opposed to innocent) and civilly guilty in a court of law for the murder of Nicole Smith and Ron Goldman. If a killing takes place in a country where it is illegal, it is illegal. Period.
Is that history why this case is getting so much obnoxious press? Yes. Is Las Vegas going after him harder than they would another defendant because of his history? Very possibly. But your argument about how other countries work is specious.
2007-09-20 17:25:16 · answer #2 · answered by Vaughn 6 · 2⤊ 0⤋
In case you hadn't noticed, there is more and more uprising about abusive treatment of women over there. Jews do not get to kill their wives for adultery - they were (not are) tried in a court as they were (not are) here. A religious court, which is why we have separation of church and state.
Having goods of another person does not mean you stole them and that person does not have the right to invade your place with guns and slap you around. He should have filed a claim with the court and taken policemen to block the sale and collect the goods. Just as Ron Goldman did to keep O.J. from getting his hands on the memorabilia
2007-09-20 17:31:54 · answer #3 · answered by Mike1942f 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Number one-OJ was not married to Nicole Simpson when he killed her and he certainly wasnt related to Ron Goldman or did you forget about that point? This is probably the most ridiculous question I've ever seen in here. OJ also is neither Jew nor Arab. What grade are you in?
2007-09-20 17:30:53 · answer #4 · answered by phlada64 6 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Recovery of legal property is an affirmative defense -- and one he's already raised. If it is show that his actions were solely to recover his property (maybe), and that his actions were reasonably (unlikely) -- he may prevail.
As far as murder -- whatever the customs are in other countries, that doesn't change the way US laws work. And immigration laws just determine who comes into the US -- it has no effect on other laws that regulate other criminal conduct.
2007-09-20 17:26:06 · answer #5 · answered by coragryph 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Is OJ Jewish, Arab, or Indian? I don't know about other countries, but here, the same law applies to everybody. If you kill someone in the US, it is murder. Unfortunately, a lot of very wealthy and famous people can get off a lot easier than your average citizen.
2007-09-20 17:25:41 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋
If one of those people you mentioned above came to the US and burned their wife alive because of what they are able to do in their own country, they would still be charged with murder. Any person in the country has to abide by U.S laws regardless of where they come from.
2007-09-20 17:26:21 · answer #7 · answered by GMR411 2 · 1⤊ 0⤋
That's why we have laws just for our country. And they have theirs. There isn't a "global" law. That's why we have so much trouble when we get too multi-cultural and people keep wanting to hang on to their old culture when they move to a new one.
That's why when people cry about the wonders of mulit-culturalism.....they need to look at the other side. You take the package when you go to another country and you can't expect another culture to totally adapt to yours.
2007-09-20 17:25:12 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
Were you on drugs when you posted this ............ or are you normally a vegetable ?
Who cares WHAT they`re allowed or not allowed to do in other countries .... especially in "nutcase" countries where entire populations are retarded !
BTW , O.J. did NOT "prove to be innocent" Orville ! It was only because of his "dream team`s" specially stacked jury that he was found not guilty because the "glove didn`t fit " !
What a pathetic joke !
Who says the useless trinkets on memorabilia he tried to steal were stolen from him ? O.J. ?? Everyone knows by now he`s a liar and a has-been ! Everyone also knows that O.J. himself is nothing more than a ....................... pathetic JOKE !
2007-09-20 17:35:34 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋
Because murder is illegal in this country. Period. Doesn't matter what other countries think about murder or why it's been committed. If you kill someone in this country, you get arrested and sent to jail if you're guilty.
2007-09-20 17:26:45 · answer #10 · answered by Mark B 2 · 2⤊ 0⤋