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If the net force on a system is zero, is the net torque also zero?If the net torque on a system is zero, is the net force zero?

2007-09-20 04:29:41 · 4 answers · asked by hanani 1 in Science & Mathematics Physics

4 answers

(Ω)Jack is incorrect--the answer is "No" to both.

Example: consider a seesaw-like lever that two people (one on either side) can either push up on, or push down on. Say the lever is 4 feet long (from end to end), with its fulcrum in the middle.

Scenario 1: Person on the left pushes UP with 10 lbs force; person on the right pushes DOWN with 10 lbs force. The net force is ZERO, but the net torque is 40 foot-pounds.

Scenario 2: Person on the left pushes UP with 10 lbs force; person on the right also pushes UP with 10 lbs force. The net torque is ZERO, but the net force is 20 lbs.

2007-09-20 05:21:46 · answer #1 · answered by RickB 7 · 1 0

Double-verify that that's a static difficulty -- that's, a difficulty related to no acceleration (which consists of angular acceleration). keep in mind: for those circumstances. If rotational action is in touch, the situation ought to additionally be happy, the place is torque, is the 2d of inertia, and is the angular acceleration. go with a pivot factor. generally that's obvious because of the fact the undertaking includes a hinge or a set factor. If the alternative isn't glaring, %. the pivot factor because of the fact the area at which you have the main unknowns (parent 0). This simplifies issues because of the fact forces on the pivot factor create no torque through pass product:

2016-11-05 22:58:00 · answer #2 · answered by monsalvatge 4 · 0 0

a force applied 100 N on a spanner at a distance of 10cm

2016-06-19 22:31:07 · answer #3 · answered by fiza 1 · 0 0

First one: Yes.

Second one: Not necessarily.

I'm wrong.

2007-09-20 04:42:03 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

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