2007-09-20 02:56:14 · 3 answers · asked by Sweet Pea 3 in Social Science ➔ Psychology
When used regularly, the two mean the same thing. They are used to describe an event that one believes will happen (or has happenend), or one what the person wants see come to fruition.
Secondly, a "vision" you can have while awake, and "dream" while you are asleep, if you need a difference between the two.
2007-09-20 03:11:05 · answer #1 · answered by Hot Coco Puff 7 · 7⤊ 0⤋
I think that depends on two things: 1) your definition of 'vision' and 2) the cultural background of the person having the vision or dream.
A Native American would say that they are the same thing in all senses. One of contemporary scientific Western culture would say that a dream only happens when the person is at rest in REM or early stages of sleep, whereas a vision can happen while either asleep or awake. One of a contemporary Western culture with a more mystic or spiritual background may say that a vision contains content intended for one to use benefically, whereas a dream lacks that same content.
2007-09-20 10:06:02 · answer #2 · answered by Aria T 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
According too the Bible AGE. According to man a dream is a state of R.E.M. sleep while a vision can happen any time.
2007-09-20 10:36:37 · answer #3 · answered by Healing_Rain 4 · 0⤊ 1⤋