2007-09-20 01:28:40 · 2 answers · asked by Anonymous in Social Science ➔ Economics
What cost $1 in 1906 would cost $21.63 in 2006.
http://www.westegg.com/inflation/
Such numbers should be used with caution . Because of the change of products available there is always some ambiguity in cost of living comparisons over long time periods, However there are many common items that can be used.and not being perfectly accurate is not the same as knowing nothing.
2007-09-20 02:26:03 · answer #1 · answered by meg 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
I'd argue that there is no fair way to measure such a statistic.
How are you going to find out how much more a DVD player costs now over its price 100 years ago? Or the price of a computer? Or of cable TV? or airline tickets?
The world is such a different place now that it makes trying get an "apples to apples" comparison impossible and meaningless.
2007-09-20 08:37:47 · answer #2 · answered by chocolahoma 7 · 1⤊ 1⤋