i just dont get it. why does it have to be equal to 90 degrees to get the equilibrium??? i think we can get the equilibrium even if its not qual to 90 degrees but HE said that it should be 90.
2007-09-20 00:53:16 · 5 answers · asked by alexa r 1 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Physics
When there is any number of forces, all these forces can be replaced by a single vector which is called the resultant of these forces.
Conversely, it is possible to resolve a single force into many components in many directions if we desire so.
Depending upon the problem, for convenience and ease we used to resolve the forces into two components and that too in two perpendicular directions,
However, if we desire we can resolve them into as many components in different directions but the resultant must give us the same result.
2007-09-20 02:52:55 · answer #1 · answered by Pearlsawme 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
It's to keep the equations and thought processes simple. As other answers have indicated, a force F can be resolved into any number of axes, but you'd need to know the angle between F and each axis. The force along each axis would be computed as Fcos(theta(axis)). With perpendicular axes you need only one theta and can use sine and cosine theta for the two components. And think of the further complexity of arbitrary axes in three dimensions. Oh, the horror!
2007-09-20 10:51:20 · answer #2 · answered by kirchwey 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
the process of resolving into components is such.
When u resolve a given force (F), u get its components as Fsin theta and Fcos theta. and it is easy to get sin and cos when the angle is 90 degree. Don't u think so?
2007-09-20 08:49:00 · answer #3 · answered by keep smiling 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Fx^2+Fy^2=F^2 which is only true in general if you form a right triangle when you resolve for
2007-09-20 14:17:11 · answer #4 · answered by TRACER 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
:P
2007-09-20 08:37:38 · answer #5 · answered by icey27choco 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋