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2007-09-19 12:51:25 · 4 answers · asked by Mike B 2 in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

4 answers

YES. -f(x) = -1 * f(x). So, you did it correctly.

2007-09-19 13:31:16 · answer #1 · answered by JM 4 · 1 0

No. f(-x) = 2+3cos(-x) = 2+3cos(x)

2007-09-19 12:58:07 · answer #2 · answered by ironduke8159 7 · 0 1

I believe so.

2007-09-19 12:59:08 · answer #3 · answered by aries44 2 · 0 1

sure

2007-09-19 13:07:32 · answer #4 · answered by Theta40 7 · 1 1

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