Thus if there is more demand for eurpean output on behalf of Americans but less supply on behalf of europeans as a result of the increase in their rates then it means that the dollar has to loose its value so that supply can meat demand?
Is my reasoning correct????
The valuation of currencies is so interesting to me yet I've never had anyone explain it to me accurately...
Id really appreaciate some help to de-mystify it!!!! thanks!!
2007-09-18
20:56:59
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3 answers
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asked by
jules
2
in
Social Science
➔ Economics