Why didn't Germany engage the women as part of their war production during WW2?

Question

Will this make any significant difference in contrast with Britain who did so?

Answer 1

Spreedog is correct, Jason. It didn't fit the Nazi ideology to have women work outside the home - their job was to have as many children as possible to sustain the future of the Reich. (This was only if they were Aryan, of course!)
Yes - they had all the slave labor they wanted. The primary problem with this was many of the people forced into working for the b's were slaves. They were malnourished, died off quickly and, before they did so, many committed acts of sabotage which really screwed up the works. We didn't have to worry about this (Allies) - our workers wanted to do their best (for the most part, there are always exceptions.)
Every woman in my family (both sides), who was old enough at the time, worked at Curtiss-Wright on the P-51's.
The Germans were stupid.

Answer 2

That has always amazed me too. It was part of the NAZI ideology that a woman's place was home raising children. Women received medals for having multiple children - their primary contribution to the Reich. The assumption must be that the leaders preferred to use the forced labor of conquered peoples rather than employ their women, but the slave laborers would be hostile and would botch the job any way they could - if they could get away with it. America and Britain had a HUGE advantage - especially America - using women who turned out to be very good factory workers.

Answer 3

Germany had forced labor available for hire [ prisoners ] during the war. Prisoners who weren't considered dangerous could be hired out to work in factories [ Mercedes Benz ].
This was really dumb because a lot of women were able to have enough time to work for the Resistance.

Answer 4

didnt you know - the nazis were woman pretending to be wimpy women men