I frequently hear the argument that marriage is only meant to be between a man and a woman because they are capable of bearing children together and therefore are a legitamate couple.
But my question is this.... what about heterosexual couples that are unable to concieve? Should they have their ability to marry revoked?
My Aunt and Uncle have been married for 12 years and are both physically incapable of getting pregnant together (or seperately for that matter). My other Aunt is the same way, she is physically not capable of getting pregnant, should she and her future husband be denied the right to marry? What if a woman has her uterus removed, should she be denied a right to marry since she and he husband can not concieve children?
I know the Catholics teach that sex is strictly for procreational purposes, so is a couple that is not physically able to have children denied the right to marry in the Catholic church?
2007-09-18
16:37:34
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5 answers
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asked by
Whishkey Bottom.
3
in
Politics & Government
➔ Law & Ethics
Um, no, sorry. Neither of my aunts was EVER capable of bearing children. EVER. My uncle was not either. EVER. They had abnormalities from the time they were born.
2007-09-18
16:49:10 ·
update #1
Of course I am taking very certain examples, because homosexuals are a very small minority of the population. They comprise less then 10% of all people. I don't see why we are all so terrified of them getting married.
2007-09-18
16:50:33 ·
update #2