Is someone who is "sexually promiscuous" necessarily morally "indecent"?

Question

What about the "harm" aspect of the definition of bad or immoral ? Like , if someone has "tastes" that are a bit "excessive" , but who does not mean harm and is actively aware and avoiding harm to anyone ?

I'm NOT talkin about myself , neither now or anytime in the past .

Answer 1

Yes. Excess in anything results in moral decay. Note that morality usually works hand-in-hand with moderation and self-control.

Sexual behavior is no exception.

Answer 2

Morality is subjective to the culture of the time. There have been cultures in the past where raping a woman was not even a crime. Yes, it sounds alarming, but these rapists would not have been viewed as taboo or morally inferior.

On a lesser scale than culture, morality is individually defined by a person's upbringing. Ever wonder why the prison population is largely populated by African Americans? It is because sadly there is still a much greater percentage of black children growing up in horribly abusive conditions.

In short, there is no way to paint morality in a black and white statement.

Answer 3

Oh. This is a difficult question. Usually, society will immediately condemn sexually promisuity. However, I think you must look to the roots of the issue. If they are sexually promiscuous because they just love sex, well, I would classify that as morally indecent, especially if they are married.

However, if prostitutes are sexually promiscuous, but not all want to do this. Many have mouths to feed, families to look after, money they require. If this is the case, I don't classify them as indecent, but in fact, wonderful at heart. Its almost the "Prostitute with a heart of gold" kind of argument.