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if attached lobes are recessive, why do i see so many people with attached ears and hardly see those who have free ear lobes(when free ear lobes are dominant)? for instance, most celebrities have attached ears. can anyone explain this phenonmena?

2007-09-18 09:50:25 · 2 answers · asked by ar2ch 1 in Science & Mathematics Biology

2 answers

I don't have any statistics about the percentage of people with attached earlobes vs. free earlobes. However, the dominant trait isn't always found in the largest percentage of people.

For example, the most common blood type in the United States is Type O. However, Type O blood requires two copies of the recessive O allele. It just happens that the O allele is very common in the U.S. population.

Imagine you had a bowl full of checkers: 90 red and 10 black.
The black checkers represent the dominant allele, and the reds represent the recessive. Close your eyes and draw out two checkers. You most likely drew out two reds because that's the main color in the bowl. In fact if you drew checkers again and again, you'd draw reds more often -- even though red is recessive. There are just more of them in the bowl. That translates to more of certain recessive alleles in the population, so more people end up with the recessive form of the trait.

2007-09-18 11:47:22 · answer #1 · answered by ecolink 7 · 0 0

Well in my family, my mom has attached and my dad has free earlobes. My older sisier and I got the free earlobes and my younger sisiter got the attached. I think more people have free earlobes.

2007-09-18 16:55:47 · answer #2 · answered by Cilly 2 · 1 2

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