Can someone explain *why this is true?
2007-09-18 06:41:53 · 5 answers · asked by RogerDodger 1 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Mathematics
(4x)/(2x+1) = 2 - 2/(2x+1)
Multiply both sides by (2x+1)
4x = 2(2x+1) - 2
4x = 4x +2 - 2 = 4x
2007-09-18 06:45:48 · answer #1 · answered by Astral Walker 7 · 0⤊ 1⤋
(4x)/(2x+1)=2-2/(2x+1) multiply bothe sides by (2x+1)
4x=2(2x+1)-2 multiply through by 2 on the right side
4x=4x+2 - 2
and it's an identity.
HTH
Doug
2007-09-18 06:46:54 · answer #2 · answered by doug_donaghue 7 · 0⤊ 1⤋
1st multiply both side with (2x+1)
4x=2(2x+1)-2
4x= 4x+2 -2
4x=4x
so, it is true.
2007-09-18 06:50:15 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋
f(x) = a million/[2^3 * (a million+x^2)^3] => f(x) = (a million+x^2)^-3/8 Differentiate w.r.t. x and use Chain Rule, => f ' (x) = [-3 (a million+x^2)^-2 * (2x)]/8 => f ' (x) = -0.seventy 5 (a million+x^2)^2 * x Now, f ' (x)>0 ? x < 0.. considering the fact that, (a million+x^2) is often helpful, i.e. (a million+x^2)>0.. additionally 0.seventy 5 is a continuing. consequently, sign of f '(x) is ruled via (-x).
2016-12-26 16:50:23 · answer #4 · answered by ? 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
It's only true if x is different from -1/2
Ilusion
2007-09-20 03:12:07 · answer #5 · answered by Ilusion 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋