She was abusing his son, and he left her with everything except his son and personal belongings. She would have been the one to file. How can we find out if she did?
2007-09-18 02:46:29 · 11 answers · asked by llnlln56 5 in Family & Relationships ➔ Marriage & Divorce
my question to you would be why on earth would you want to marry someone who allowed his child to be taken by someone who was abusing him? Doesn't sound like he is that great of a guy.....
2007-09-18 02:51:43 · answer #1 · answered by abc 7 · 0⤊ 1⤋
IF she filed, he WOULD have had to get served with a copy of the petition to SIGN, he would have had to SIGN the petition and get it sent BACK to the court within 30 days of signing it.
There IS no other way to get a divorce in this country. BOTH parties have to "agree", by signature, to the divorce. One person cannot just legally walk away from the other and it be done with. MARRIAGE is a LEGAL and binding CONTRACT.
I have such a hard time sometimes understanding how someone can get themselves in to things yet have no CLUE how to get themselves out.
2007-09-18 10:50:40 · answer #2 · answered by BikerChick 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Why would SHE have been the one to file? There are no rules as to who files for divorce or not. He would have been served divorce papers IF she did file...if he wasn't served then SHE didn't file and he is STILL married. If he wanted a divorce so badly why didn't HE file?
2007-09-18 10:03:01 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
If he has not signed anything then he is not divorced as far as I am aware, he should have had papers through or been contacted in some way by the courts.
2007-09-18 13:08:25 · answer #4 · answered by sparkleythings_4you 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
If she filed, he would have had to sign papers. You can't divorce someone without giving them the opportunity to counter....... he would know.. trust me. I suppose it's different for every state... I'm from Jersey. but I imagine it's the same. It is infringement on someone's civil rights not to be able to counter..
2007-09-18 09:52:55 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
He would know. He would have had to sign paperwork (the court would have served him with papers.) And he CAN file... either one can.
2007-09-18 09:56:29 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
These men...Why didn't he file if she was so bad? He would have to file for full custody of his son...yes?
2007-09-18 09:52:14 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
If she divorced him he would have been served divorce papers...If he was never served/order determining child custody then they are still married!
2007-09-18 09:53:32 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 1⤋
Call the court house in the county she was living in.
2007-09-18 09:51:20 · answer #9 · answered by Spring 5 · 1⤊ 2⤋
he'd have been contacted by the courts if she had filed. best to get his own lawyer and start proceedings.
2007-09-18 09:52:55 · answer #10 · answered by racer 51 7 · 0⤊ 2⤋