No, I don't think this gets any easier if we first suppose the f_n are real valued. The proof - which is not that difficult - would be exactly the same.
Let eps >0 be given. Since f_n converges uniformly on X, the Cauchy criterion implies the existence of a positive integer k such that n >=k implies
|f_n| <= |f_k| + eps (|f_n| means the function x --> |f_n(x)|)
which shows the k tail of f_n is dominated by the function |f_k| + eps Since f_n --> f, so does its k tail.
Since f_k is integrable, so is |f_k|, so that Int |f_k| du < oo. And since u(X) < oo, it follows that
Int (|f_k| + eps) du = Int |f_k| du + eps Int du = Int |f_k| du + eps u(X) < oo, which shows |f_k| + eps is integrable. It follows the k tail of f_n converges to f and is dominated by the integrable function |f_k| + eps. By Lebesgue Dominated Convergence Theorem, it follows f is integrable and
Int f du = lim (n >=k) Int f_n du, which shows the k tail of Int f_n du converges to Int f du. So, the whole sequence converges to the same limit, and we have
Int f du = lim Int f_n du.
To see the condition u(X) < oo is really essential, put X = [0, oo), M = Lebesgue sigma-algebra, u = Lebesgue measure, so that u(X) = oo. Define
f_n(x) = c_n(x)/n, where c_n is the characteristic function of [0, n]. Given eps >0, for n >1/eps we have
If x is in [0, n], then 0 < f_n(x) = 1/n < eps
If x >n, then f_n(x) = 0 < eps
which shows f_n converges uniformly on [0, oo) to the identically zero function f =0. So, Inf f du =0. But, for every n, we have
Int f_n du = 1/n * u([0,n]) =1/n * n =1, so that
lim Int f_n du = 1 > 0 = Int fdu (In virtue of Fatou's Lemma, the left hand side could never be less then the right hand side).
So, although f_n converges uniformly to 0 and, in addition, the sequence f_n is uniformly bounded by 1, we don't have Int f du = lim Int f_n du. The condition u(X) < oo is really essential.
In the case of this sequence f_n, it's easy to see that, if a function g dominates f_n, then we must have g(x) >=1/1 for x in [0,1], g(x) >= 1/2 for x in [1,2], g(x) >= 1/3 for x in [2,3]........so that Int g du >= 1 + 1/2 + 1/3.....Since this is the harmonic series, which diverges, we see no function that dominates f_n is integrable, and the Dominated Convergence Theorem can't be applied.
2007-09-17 08:12:15
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answer #1
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answered by Steiner 7
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2016-11-14 17:05:05
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answer #2
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answered by Anonymous
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