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The whiole story:
We were seperated 2 years ago. I signed a quit claim deed and gave him the property shortly after. He re-financed the house without me on the loan, I no longer lived there and we are now divorced. They ran the title BEFORE the quit claim deed was filed since my ex sat on it for some time. Earlier this year I received paperwork re: the foreclosure of his house. I was named as one of the defendants. In that summons was a copy of the new mortgage agreement with him as the sole borrower. I filed a response with copies of the quit claim deed and proof I was NOT a signer on the current mortgage. I WAS on the title but am not any longer and again, I was not involved in the re-financing of the house. A judgement has been made and I am still (according to the court) responsible along with his current renter. How is that possible and am I truly responsible?

2007-09-17 06:23:12 · 2 answers · asked by JESSE 2 in Business & Finance Renting & Real Estate

2 answers

AS LONG AS THE QUIT CLAIM WAS RECORDED - THERE SHOULD BE NO PROBLEM. ALL TITLE HAS TO DO IS DO AN AMENDMENT TO TITLE BY UPDATING IT. SIMPLE AS THAT.

2007-09-17 06:57:18 · answer #1 · answered by SUPER WOMAN! 2 · 0 0

As long as the mortgage was refinanced into his name only, you have nothing to worry about, even if you actually are still on the Deed.

2007-09-17 14:18:53 · answer #2 · answered by bdancer222 7 · 0 0

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