...Why all objects fall at the same rate in a vacuum? Also, which of Newton's Laws does this relate to?
Thanks in advance!
2007-09-16 20:29:50 · 6 answers · asked by CassC 1 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Physics
F = (GMeMo) / r^2 Newton's law of gravity
F = MoA Newton's 2nd law of motion
Put them together.
A = (GMe) / r^2
Mo, the mass of the object cancels out. So the acceleration of a falling object depends on the mass of earth and radius of earth but not on the mass of the object.
This is actually a very profound fact that is not obvious.
Inertial mass = gravitational mass
2007-09-16 20:56:36 · answer #1 · answered by Jeffrey K 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
All the objects fall at the same rate in vacuum as there is no resistance available to the motion. If there was some resistance, it will depend on the shape of the object and thus different shape objects will observe different force of resistance and thus they would fall at different rate.
Newton's II law. i.e. F = mg (+/-)
2007-09-17 04:49:58 · answer #2 · answered by Ehsan R 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Falling objects are all subject ot the same 9.8 m/s² acceleration of gravity. But, when there is air present, many of them also experience the force of air resistance which acts in the direction opposite to gravity, thus slowing their descent. This is all part of Newtons laws of gravitation and F-ma having to do with net (or total) force.
Doug
2007-09-17 03:38:42 · answer #3 · answered by doug_donaghue 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
because there is no any medium which resist the object to fall downward.the equation is : F=ma.
2007-09-17 03:38:30 · answer #4 · answered by vasav d 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
because there is no friction on he object from air.
for law ask it to science teacher
2007-09-17 03:35:02 · answer #5 · answered by Puneet k 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
find yourself
2007-09-17 03:35:37 · answer #6 · answered by han 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋