Two cranes are lifting identical steel beams at the time.One crane is putting out twice as much power as the other assuming friction is neglible, what can you conclude is happening to explain this difference?
2007-09-16 14:34:32 · 5 answers · asked by bklyn70 1 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Physics
One of the cranes has less mechanical advantage then the other.
It's a pulley problem.
2007-09-16 14:40:33 · answer #1 · answered by bsandyman 3 · 0⤊ 2⤋
One crane is lifting the beam twice as fast as the other. The amount of energy required (work done, in Joules) to lift a mass m through a distance h against gravitational acceleration g is simply W=mgh. But power is the -rate- at which energy is used (or work is done in Joules/sec). So a crane that is twice as powerful should be raising the beam twice as quickly.
Doug
2007-09-16 14:42:40 · answer #2 · answered by doug_donaghue 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
You suggested they are lifting comparable metallic beams. we do no longer be responsive to if the cranes are comparable of their overall performance. Are they the two lifting the load in an analogous way? would be one is shifting it vertically against gravity and yet another one is shifting it horizontally. The motor performance and the operator studies would be diverse. using and coasting would reason substantial adjustments.
2017-01-02 07:06:54 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
One is lifted 2 times faster
P = F*v
W = N * m/s
2007-09-16 14:47:50 · answer #4 · answered by GPC 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Mechanical advantage. One boom may be at a lower angle than that of the other causing more force to be required to lift.
2007-09-16 14:44:52 · answer #5 · answered by coolmanhatback 3 · 0⤊ 2⤋