If an infrequent user is 40% more likely to develop psychosis than a non user, does this mean that 40% of all persons diagnosed as psychotic has a history of infrequent use? It also said that frequent users are 200% more likely to develop psychosis. Does this mean 200% of all persons diagnosed to be psychotic were frequent users? That doesn't make sense, and I'm not really good with math, can you explain what these percentages mean, and how they got those numbers? Thanks!
2007-09-16
07:18:33
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➔ Mathematics