I have read explanations in the past, but some things are unclear (big surprise) to me:
1. How do particles become "candidates" for entanglement? Were they somehow related before hand, or do they just have to interact at some point?
2. They apparantly exhibit their respective behaviors without respect to causality -- how is this proven and how is it possible? ("we don't yet know" is an acceptable answer)
3. How does this translate into the possibilty of "quantum teleportation"? I don't see or understand the flow of logic.
I am no math whiz -- if you can explain it without math, great -- but if you must, be gentle with me. This is one of the most fascinating subjects I can imagine.
2007-09-15
17:04:49
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3 answers
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asked by
glinzek
6
in
Science & Mathematics
➔ Physics
Ron: Um, okay, the math is almost meaningless to me, but I gather that by measuring the property of one of the related particles, we can make a statement regarding the probability of the state of the other. Now that very act of measurment -- doesn't this affect the state of the particle, and doesn't the entangled particle then (if we could measure it too) exhibit an opposite behaviour? So if the act of measurement, say, exactly reverses the "spin" of particle A -- how can particle B respond with a spin in he opposite direction of its previous spin? Am I making sense?
2007-09-15
18:39:13 ·
update #1