Doesn't the practise of the first automatically exclude the second?? Your thoughts, kind reader ... ????
2007-09-15 09:53:11 · 4 answers · asked by Joe 6 in Entertainment & Music ➔ Polls & Surveys
...witty....
The terms are not mutually exclusive.
A "sword" is neutral; it is the person wielding the sword who decides for good or ill.
And, because I can't stand it:
Do you know why lawyers are allowed to swim in shark-infested waters unmolested?
"Professional courtesy".
Have a good one! }:>
2007-09-15 10:07:57 · answer #1 · answered by Ja'aj };> 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
In some ways, yes, in other ways, no. I won't bother posting an essay on this topic but as far as YA goes: If people cannot give an answer based on the law they can still give an ethics-based answer of how they think the law should operate.
2007-09-15 22:29:25 · answer #2 · answered by Camperdown T 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
well I do disagree with you there Joe...
Even us ladies of the dark can see that ethics are the basis of how laws are made. Laws try to keep people ethical...it doesn't mean that lawyers have to be!
2007-09-15 18:22:07 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
The law is the rule and ethics is how the rule is applied & enforced.
2007-09-15 17:44:29 · answer #4 · answered by ♫ Bubastes, Cat Goddess♥ 7 · 1⤊ 1⤋