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Why I am asking the other's understanig of this concept B'cas I want to make sure that the meaning that i understood is right or wrong.Moreover I found it is really hard to get exact meaning that he wanted to say us.Actually , I found it is harder to understand than Einstein's relativity and quontum theory.

2007-09-15 05:57:01 · 3 answers · asked by ketan 1 in Arts & Humanities Philosophy

3 answers

You're bias will haunt you for decades to come.

Kant's theories are problematic.

2007-09-15 07:12:28 · answer #1 · answered by guru 7 · 0 0

Try reading Kant's own explanation found in his "Prolegomena to Any Future Metaphysics ..." he explains it well enough in the opening few pages. I keep finding copies of this work in used book stores. My explanation, according to what I understand of Kant: A priori is, as oppossed to 'a posteriori,' that which is grounded on 'pure reason,' and is not mixed up with anything 'empirical.' Metaphysics, according to Kant, is only possible if it could be established on 'a priori' judgments or principles; it cannot be grounded on 'a posteriori' judgments, which are judgments grounded upon experience. A priori judgments are, necessarily, judgments grounded upon pure reason alone, not upon experience. Enough?

Ray

2007-09-17 00:27:30 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 1 0

A priori, in a legal sense, based on deduction or hypothesis

2007-09-23 00:06:34 · answer #3 · answered by kissaled 5 · 0 0

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