2007-09-15 00:46:23 · 15 answers · asked by ben t 3 in Education & Reference ➔ Trivia
There are two things to look at here. Common property and owned property. The space above your land is owned up to a certain point (800 ft. or so depending on local law), but common property law takes over after that.
The common property law is basically a way to say that no singular person could own. How could you own a cloud or an underground river? The point is that everyone does, not you, even if it is above or below your property.
Common property law allows that airplane to fly over-head, those telephone poles to be installed, those pipes to be buried, that underground river that you are not allowed to pollute, those deer who are eating your bushes, and the list goes on and on. So common property is controlled by the government.
As far as the mineral law: it is common property, which is controlled by the government -- unless the government denies claim or gives it away.
2007-09-15 11:18:54 · answer #1 · answered by tristan-adams 4 · 1⤊ 0⤋
It depends on the jurisdiction in modern Canada the answer is no the owner only owns the surface and the crown owns the mineral rights. I understand that there are some old deeds that give the land owner the mineral rights down to the centre of the earth.
2007-09-15 04:05:19 · answer #2 · answered by Dangermanmi6 6 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Well, i donno about the ground but about the air you need to talk to NASA.(i was just joking)
Look at this:
According to the Oxford Companion to Law:
"In general, ownership of land includes the airspace above and the subsoil below down to the centre of the earth, as expressed in the maxim 'Cuius est solum, eius est usque ad caelum et ad inferos'; but the mineral strata in the subsoil may be sold or leased or otherwise belong to another than the owner of the surface, and modern legislation renders the flight of aircraft through an owner's airspace not a trespass."
2007-09-15 06:19:37 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
Land is never owned. The various governing bodies that regulate and tax real estate control the disposition, by renting it to users for temporary durations, or until it is stolen by force by a new willing taxpayer.
2007-09-15 00:52:51 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 2⤋
Sometimes. You would have to read the deed. It is possible to sell land to one person and underground mineral rights to another.
2007-09-15 00:51:24 · answer #5 · answered by regerugged 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
In some countries, they do not even own the mineral rights.
2007-09-15 00:50:13 · answer #6 · answered by fooles.troupe 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
who knows? I don't think anyone ever built a house that reaches the earth's core.. and uh, when someone measures the boundaries of a certain property, I dont think they still measure the depth... ^^;
2007-09-15 02:26:55 · answer #7 · answered by sparksey 2 · 1⤊ 1⤋
no..and unless you own the mineral rights you only own about 20 feet down
2007-09-15 00:49:59 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 1⤋
It depends upon the local laws.
2007-09-15 00:55:35 · answer #9 · answered by hulo 3 · 1⤊ 0⤋
yes... if as long its in the line of your property.. you can have all the land you want even if it is in the core of the earth..
2007-09-15 00:49:48 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 3⤋