Can someone please tell me ...Who is entitled to a deceased person's ss benefits??? Specifically...WHICH WIFE????? I say the first if she hasn't remarried. He says there is no way a first wife is getting S**T!!! Even if I'm kinda right...that'll work for me.(as you should be able to tell...I'm super pissed, with his attitude about this)
2007-09-14 19:05:21 · 6 answers · asked by louloutee 3 in Family & Relationships ➔ Marriage & Divorce
You are right, if the first wife hasn't remarried she can cash in on his SS even if he is alive as long as he is of age to collect.
2007-09-14 19:45:01 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
The two of you need to call the SS office and get this question answered. I think that each person gets their own SS and no one gets the husbands. But I may be wrong. Don't let small stuff like this get you into a fight. There are real issues to fight about, Choose your battles wisely and just love your husband as long as you have him with you. Life is very short and one of you could be gone tomorrow. So don't spend your time fighting. Just my thought.
2007-09-14 19:12:27 · answer #2 · answered by gigi 5 · 0⤊ 2⤋
IF HE WAS MARRIED BEFORE SHE WILL BE ENTITLED UNLESS U HAVE CHILDREN WITH HIM THEN THEY WILL RECIEVE THE BENEFITS FIRST... HE CAN STATE WHO SHOULD RECIEVE THE BENEFITS IF U WANT, TAKE HIM TO THE NEAREST SOCIAL SECURITY OFFICE AND HAVE HIM FIND OUT WHAT HIS OPTIONS REALLY ARE... WE HAD THIS PROBLEM AFTER WE GOT MARRIED AND HIS PARENTS STILL WANTED HIS BENEFITS IF HE DIED AND HE HAD TO LEGALLY CHANGE IT TO ME OR THEY WOULD OF GOTTEN EVERYTHING IF HE PASSED AWAY.
2007-09-15 04:01:10 · answer #3 · answered by THE UK WILDCAT FAMILY 10 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I have to agree with you, I would say
the 1st wife, if the 2nd wife has kids
under 18 then maybe the 2nd wife
but even then, the 1st wife has to sign
it over to her.
2007-09-14 19:17:20 · answer #4 · answered by trebor2 6 · 1⤊ 1⤋
First wife??? What the hell is this 300 BC china?
If your divorced in the year 2007 and the like you are DONE.. KAPUT... Out the picute Beee AAAtch!
if you think your entitled to benefits otherwise deemed "married" you are in a SAd sad state of denial. When you sign that paper of divorce.. you sign over the right to LEGAL tenders.
laate.
2007-09-14 19:18:21 · answer #5 · answered by BeezKneez 3 · 0⤊ 4⤋
Yes, if she was married to him for at least 10 years and is not married when he dies, and does not have benefits exceeding his. According to what I read, you would also be entitled to benefits.
Go to ssa.gov for additional info.
2007-09-14 19:20:47 · answer #6 · answered by PEGGY S 7 · 3⤊ 0⤋