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to the Turkish tribes living in Asia or even the people in Pakistan, India, Iran etc???


Because the look very similar in ways and also seem to have similar ways of acting.


Just was curious.

2007-09-14 05:12:34 · 9 answers · asked by Anonymous in Arts & Humanities History

9 answers

How would you know? Were you around in the 1800's and prior to see how Native Americans "acted?" And there is no such thing, according to science, as a "native" american. They traveled here too, no human species started on this continent.

But to answer your question, yes its very possible. But its also very possible that you or I are related to those groups too.

Wanna know something odd? Semite's are jews and arabs. Funny in the odd sense huh? They are the same race and yet they think they are totally different.

2007-09-14 05:17:24 · answer #1 · answered by Phil M 7 · 0 2

Yes it is more than possible but very likely.The native Americans arrived via the land bridge which existed before continental shift where the Bering Straits are now having originated in Asia the same as the Turks.The native Americans obviously cross bred with the early Spanish invaders.The Turks and their forefathers from central Asia conquered most of Asia including the countries you have mentioned.The only common language when the English first began to visit India was Turkish and at that time it was ruled by the Mogul empire again a race with the same central Asian origins.

2007-09-15 03:58:41 · answer #2 · answered by frankturk50 6 · 0 0

The "Spanish" speaking population now in America are a result of the inbreeding between the Spanish conquistadors who invaded this part of the world during the inquisition and the indigenous population that were living here (the Mayans, to be more specific).

This is one of the reasons I often get a laugh when Hispanics go off on their tirades about how the American white people stole the land in the Southern parts of the US from them. Apart from being historically inaccurate, they don't even realize that their entire race is a result of their Spanish ancestors basically wiping out a great civilization and absorbing its people.

-- Edit --

I thought "bloody_well_pissed" would like to see this

http://www.genetic-identity.com/Ancestry_Testing/ancestry_testing.html

Note the chart at the bottom showing the Hispanic genetic profile. They show a strong mix of north American and European DNA (leaning a bit towards the European). If you read the text it says basically the same thing that I did. The Spaniards took many of the native population as wives in their 300 year occupation thus resulting in the modern Hispanic we know today.

Hate to be the one to break it to you, but the whole "La Raza" thing is pure BS.

2007-09-14 05:23:01 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 1 2

Yes, It is believed that native populations of the America's crossed a land bridge from Asia some time during the ice age in hunt of large game.

2007-09-14 07:22:30 · answer #4 · answered by Angela 3 · 0 0

There is only one human race, and although there are many variations in skin colour, different types and colour of hair, and a multitude of body shapes and head shapes, ultimately we are all descended from a common ancestor.

So there are many similarities as you go throughout the world.

When you refer to Spanish speaking people in the USA, I take it you mean people of Mexican or other Central American ancestry. Their ancestors were "Amerindian" (native American) also. However, please bear in mind that Spanish, like English, is widely spoken. People from Cuba, Puerto Rico or Dominican Republic are mostly of Spanish ancestry, so they frequently look more European than their Central American cousins.

2007-09-14 11:29:21 · answer #5 · answered by marguerite L 4 · 0 1

No, the interior sight American inhabitants's DNA is haplogroup A-D & X on the female component (mtDNA) & Q3 on the male component. This places them on the subject material of the East Asians, valuable & Western Asians & truly some North Western Europeans. On a personnal observe, my son (observed) is interior sight American yet seems greater Turkish or Mid jap than Asian. consequently i can work out why you will ask the question.

2016-11-10 10:36:57 · answer #6 · answered by Erika 4 · 0 0

It's possible but doubtful.

Mexico and Central America had their own indigenous peoples, like the Mayans and such.

The Turks could have been in Spain, Pakistan, India and Iran. They went around conquering everywhere in that area at one time.

2007-09-14 05:19:31 · answer #7 · answered by Frosty 7 · 0 2

The Spanish are Europeans.
30% of Mexico is still FULL-BLOOD INDIGENOUS.

Mexicans are BROWN.
Spaniards are nowhere near as BROWN as Mexicans.
People who say that Mexicans are Spaniards are racist. They have just raped 30% of the population with blood that they do not possess.

You could say the same about African-Americans and the British.

Both speak English.
Both have English names.

But one is the colonized, the other the colonizer.

2007-09-14 05:24:54 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 0 3

The answer is quite simple really: They're Human. We're all related.

2007-09-14 14:06:14 · answer #9 · answered by Vivi 5 · 0 1

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