i'm trying to find the inverse of (x-1) / 4
and i got it to be (((x/4) +1) -1) which equals to (x/4) / 4 right?
which equals to x?
2007-09-13 16:54:22 · 9 answers · asked by Anonymous in Science & Mathematics ➔ Mathematics
(X/4)/4 = X/16
The multiplicative inverse of (x-1)/4 is 4/(x-1).
The additive inverse of (x-1)/4 is -[(x-1)/4].
2007-09-13 17:02:00 · answer #1 · answered by koi goldfish 2 · 1⤊ 0⤋
No, it's x/16. (x/4)/(1/4) = x
2007-09-14 00:02:25 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
man you go all wrong from the beginning..
from the last:
(x/4)/4 IS NOT x
(imagine, you got x divided by 4 THEN divided AGAIN by 4, so it's x/16 for sure)
(((x/4) +1) -1) IS NOT (x/4) / 4
do it from outer ring you'll get x/4.
I think inverse of (x-1) / 4 is 4/(x-1) NOT (((x/4) +1) -1).
2007-09-14 00:07:26 · answer #3 · answered by redy_salem 2 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Nope. Switch the x and y variables and solve for y. I got 4x+1 =y. That is how inverse functions are found. It isn't necessarily the inverse of the number.
2007-09-14 00:15:39 · answer #4 · answered by james w 5 · 0⤊ 1⤋
(x / 4) / 4 = x / 16
2007-09-15 06:28:37 · answer #5 · answered by Como 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
let (x / 4) = a
hence, it ll bcom a / 4 or a times 1 /4
therefore, it ll bcom x / 4 times 1 / 4
which is x / 16
2007-09-14 00:00:50 · answer #6 · answered by frederick_leong87 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I don't think that the inverse of (x-1)/4 is x.
x = (y - 1)/4
4x = y - 1
y = 4x + 1
Right?
2007-09-14 00:07:41 · answer #7 · answered by cjcourt 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yes
x / 4 / 4 = x/4 ( 4 /1 )= x
2007-09-14 00:01:08 · answer #8 · answered by Joseph 1 · 0⤊ 1⤋
yes, (x/4)/4 is equal to x.
2007-09-13 23:58:57 · answer #9 · answered by Craig W 1 · 0⤊ 1⤋