It is considered immoral for me to steal from my neighbor Joe in order to send my kids to school, or to subsidize my tobacco crop, so how can it be right for me to do it using the government as my agent? Is it moral just because enough of us vote to take Joe's money for something we want to do? Is this "mob rule" okay for any purpose, or only if it is a "good" purpose? If so, who decides what a "good" purpose is?
2007-09-13 16:00:33 · 4 answers · asked by Beligirl87 2 in Politics & Government ➔ Law & Ethics
This is called rent seeking. Those who pay the government a little campaign contribution or otherwise pays a small fee or bribe get to decide what is a good purpose, usually one that enriches them.
2007-09-13 16:07:46 · answer #1 · answered by buttfor2007 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yes, it is immoral to steal. Period. How I wish, others thought like you. This world would be a far better place to live in.
2007-09-13 16:11:08 · answer #2 · answered by muthya52 1 · 1⤊ 0⤋
You certainly lost me. If you have a question, ask it so it is understandable and with some facts.
2007-09-13 16:08:25 · answer #3 · answered by sensible_man 7 · 0⤊ 1⤋
I have no idea what your asking.. it makes no sense... run on sentences etc.. Delete this and rewrite it..
2007-09-13 16:07:56 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋