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2007-09-13 15:10:10 · 4 answers · asked by athiyav2000 3 in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

Could you please do some algebraic manipulation to find the answer

2007-09-13 15:23:39 · update #1

4 answers

The limit of ((x+1)/2x)*sin(x) as x -> 0 is as follows:


lim ((x+1) / (2*x)) * sin (x)
x->0

Using the distributive property, distribute the sin(x)

lim ((x * sin(x))/(2*x)) + (sin(x)/(2*x))
x->0


Now, we know that the limit of (sin(x) / x) = 1 as x ->0

So, factor out the (1/2) out of the two equations and we get:


lim (1/2)*[ ((x * sin(x)) / x) + (sin(x)/x) ]
x->0

The x's cancel out and we get

lim (1/2)*[ sin(x) + (sin(x)/x) ]
x->0

so we fill in the blanks,

lim (1/2) * [ sin(0) + (1) ], remember (sin(x) / x) = 1 as x ->0
x->0

lim (1/2) * (0 + 1) = (1/2)
x->0

The answer is 0.5 OR (1/2).

Hope this Helps.

2007-09-13 15:44:46 · answer #1 · answered by VortexHunter 3 · 0 0

Sin lim of x+1 as x->0 is 1, then in the limit, the function approaches, sin(x)/2x. Since lim sin(x)/x as x->0=1 (Surprise!), the limit of the function should approach 1/2.

2007-09-13 15:23:02 · answer #2 · answered by cattbarf 7 · 0 0

this is ultimate proved by the Squeeze regulation. because -one million <= sin x <= one million for all x, we've that -one million/x <= sin x / x <= one million/x for all x removed from 0. because lim(x--> infinity) (+ or -) one million/x = 0, the Squeeze regulation facilitates us to end definitively that lim(x--> infinity) sin x / x = 0, besides. i'm hoping that helps!

2016-10-04 13:08:46 · answer #3 · answered by Erika 4 · 0 0

the limit is as x approaches 0 is .5

If you make a table of values (x,y) and plug in numbers really close to 0 ( such as .000001, or -.000001) you can observe that x-value approaches .5

2007-09-13 15:21:41 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 1 0

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