There was no written contract (it was an amiable agreement)- and the bank records stop seven years ago. The borrower denies ever having gotten the money but the lender is sure they lent it.
2007-09-13 10:40:33 · 6 answers · asked by Anonymous in Politics & Government ➔ Law & Ethics
Sounds like you won't be able to prove anything. If you have some sort of record of repayment it might help, however if you have nothing other than your word, you have nothing in court.
2007-09-13 10:48:25 · answer #1 · answered by davidmi711 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Unless there is a witness, some written proof, or even a third party who was privy to the proceeding (such as a bank employee who remembers the money changing hands or something similar), then nothing can be done.
If I were in your shoes, I would start doing some detective work hunting up possible witnesses, or ex-employees of banks or other financial institutions where the parties may have done business. Hunt through any papers you can find (if you can gain access). A diary might help (if anyone is dumb enough these days to keep one).
2007-09-13 18:27:06 · answer #2 · answered by Wyoming Rider 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
This is why contracts are drawn up and signed. Nothing in writing means nothing to prove it is owed.
2007-09-13 18:01:00 · answer #3 · answered by sensible_man 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
If the lender has no documentation to back it up, or witnesses to verify his claim, he's screwed.
2007-09-13 17:48:43 · answer #4 · answered by Teekno 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
You can't do anything about a loan even if it was yesterday if there was no written contract.
2007-09-13 18:04:16 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋
no proof, nothing can be done...there is no way to prove or disprove.
good luck :)
2007-09-13 17:48:53 · answer #6 · answered by Blue October 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋