Why do Christians denigrate the myths of their Bible by saying there is only one God?

Question

Quote from the Oxford study Bible: Genesis 6:2
The sons of the Gods saw how beautiful these daughters were, so they took for themselves such women as they Chose.

An aside: To be completely honest, only about 75% of the New trestaments state "Gods" and the others say God. However, that in itself, denigrates the myths as the Torah has the plural version in Hebrew.

aladdinwa, Hebrew is the original language of the Torah and the Old testament was copied from the Torah.

To all Christians trying to rationalize. The Torah is specifically plural in its originating language. I don't care what your new testament says.

Answer 1

To me it seems that "God" of the Christian faith wanted to be like Zeus, Thor, ect. The catholic church created the "demigods" for "God" (Yahweh) the saints as they are.
Every faith has an "incharge leader God" and then the lesser Gods. Even Chrisitianity. They developed them as a source to convert others - of what they considered paganistic - religions to their religion. Conversion meant more followers which meant more offerings and money for the "Temple" or "Church" and more power over a larger group of people.
I always looked at the original bible (not the scrolls) printed by the Church in the early 600's as a twisted story that had been recantered and retold so many times that the stories have been changed by the retelling over 500 yrs. Each story can loose some info and someone else would add something or to grab the attetion of the group maybe sensationlize some of the aspects. Back then, very few people could read or write and verbal story telling and verbal communication was the only way to communicate or telling of stories was the only entertainment. A good story teller could live pretty well in a village back then. When the Monarchy of the west saw the power of this religion they converted to show that it was a reason to ran sack a nation of its valuables in the name of their deity. Then as the Church grew those that were already wealthy and held land when they joined the clergy had influence politically. That is when the bible started being rewritten to reflect the changing times. Rebels were always considered Pagans or Worshipers of Satan as well as Witches and since they could not hold them on suspicion they would cry witch and make up "markings" for proof or some of the more Sadistic rulers would use extreme torture to release a confession and name names if possible. Hence the story of Robin Hood and so on.
I love when you bring the proof out and the way you bring out the reasoner in me!

Answer 2

There have been many an argument over the years about whether or not there are mistakes in the Bible... As Jesus spoke Aramaic, don't go to the Greek to discern the original.
That brings up a HUGH problem: have you read the King James version? How about the Catholic Bible? How about the Mormons? How about the Dead Sea Scrolls? That is what all the conflict is about, so many wars: no one can agree what even BELONGS IN THE BIBLE!
It is not so much as "lost in translation" as "lost going from a shephardic culture to one of TVs, computers, cell phones, etc." Most people alive today have never worked in the fields or flocks or herds; they have no idea what was being said.
You chose something that was just a variant in versions of the Bible: How about the 10 Commandments?
I. Thou shalt have no other gods before me!
That is very clear, very plain; it is the same in every version of the Bible I have ever read, and it is in the Torah and also applies to the Muslims in the Koran.
If you read the entire Old Testament, there are several places that mention lines like this: "In those days, there were giants on the earth, children of gods and women".
God told Abram (later Abraham) that "I will make of thee a great nation..." if you will worship only me.
There are so many places where the Bible mentions other gods; including when Jesus cast out demons!
It is like that old hymnal that states "...for such a worm as I..."
The Bible does not say that Man is a worm; it says that God is as high above Man as Man is above a worm!
There is so much discord amongst the religious people; this is why I shun the organized church. They don't even bother to read their own version of the Bible. Like one of the Mormons on Y!. I have read the Book of Mormon, the King James, the Catholic Bible, the Good News translation and several others.
I am not an expert, but so many claiming that they are seemingly know less than I.
Good point!
Keep people thinking!

Answer 3

That must be the only translation of the Hebrew to say 'gods' (plural). I know of no other. Or it could be a literal translation of Elohim which is plural, as in 'Let us make man in our image'. This does not necessarily mean more than one God, numerically. However, early rabbinic expositors understood the passage to mean persons of high social class, meaning there was a disregard of social differences. The very early Church Fathers (and many of the Reformers) referred to them as the descendants of Seth. There are similar differences interpreting the Hebrew for 'Nephilim' (the name given to the offspring of these beings). This can be translated as 'giants' or 'fallen ones'. Biblical mention of these Nephilim suggests a reality behind the old mythologies of amoral men of great strength. (PS I'm not 100% sure about your quote from the Oxford study Bible; no way would they say 'Chose' with a capital 'C'!)

Answer 4

There is another verse in the Bible that I noticed seemed to treat the actual existence of other gods in a peculiar way.

John 10:34, “Jesus answered them, Is it not written in your law, I said, Ye are gods?”

This is a verse where Jesus is quoting from Psalms. Jesus was using this statement as a defense against Pharisees that were accusing him of claiming to be God.

a lot of Christians say that the verse in Psalms actually means "judges" when it says "gods". However, that would mean that by using this statement in his defense, Jesus was saying that he wasn't a "god" he was just a "judge" and that he had just used an archaic definition of the word "god".

On the other hand, Christians claim that Jesus actually DID claim to be God. So, if that was the case, then by using this Psalm in his defense, Jesus was saying that it was OK for him to say he was a god, because the scriptures stated that there was more than one god.

So, one way you have Jesus denying his divinity, the other way you have Jesus claiming that multiple gods actually exist and that he is one of them.

The text of the Psalm in rather interesting on its own, as well.

82:1 God standeth in the congregation of the mighty; he judgeth among the gods.
82:2 How long will ye judge unjustly, and accept the persons of the wicked? Selah.
82:3 Defend the poor and fatherless: do justice to the afflicted and needy.
82:4 Deliver the poor and needy: rid them out of the hand of the wicked.
82:5 They know not, neither will they understand; they walk on in darkness: all the foundations of the earth are out of course.
82:6 I have said, Ye are gods; and all of you are children of the most High.
82:7 But ye shall die like men, and fall like one of the princes.

If this Psalm is actually using the word "gods" as a pseudonym for "judges" or "powerful men" then why would God say "But ye shall die like men"?

Obviously judges and other powerful men are going die like men, they ARE men. So, here it seems that God was talking to a group of "things" that wouldn't normally "die like men".

Moreover, the Psalm says that these beings are not only gods, but also the "children of the Most High". So, if there are multiple "gods" that are all "sons of God", does that mean that Jesus was just one of these beings? That wouldn't fit too well with the claim that he is "God's _Only_ Begotten Son".

So, what is this Psalm really about?

Could the "gods" just be angels? If so, that would seem to imply that Jesus was actually just an angel too.

Could the "gods" in this Psalm be the "Sons of Gods" in Genesis 6:2? That seems like a pretty good fit. But it still puts the status of Jesus in question.

Anyhow, it seems that instead of answering your question I've just sort of expanded it...

Answer 5

Read the first ten books of Augustine's "City of God" where he examines the ontological status of pagan divinities. Those references to "gods" that you cite can refer to an angelic entity or a being whose essential nature is of a higher order than our own. The worldview of the Bible recognizes the existence of spiritual realities other than God, but claims to worship such beings is evidence of sin. The issue is not the existence of spiritual powers other than God, but the subordination of these powers to the God of Israel, and the futility of worshipping such deities.

Answer 6

If you want to find out if it was "Gods" or "God" you will need to go back to the original Greek text. You know what they say about things being "lost in translation"? This is a good example.

terry: The Jewish Torah was in Hebrew, the Christian Bible was originally in Greek.
.

Answer 7

Depends on how you want to translate it. Both angels and men were, on occasion, called "Sons of God."

When God says "let us make man in our image" it is taken by Christians as an indication of the Trinity.

Then there are times like when God said "Thou shall have no other gods before me," which is taken to mean that one shouldn't worship other gods, not that other gods are real.

So I would question your question; why do you claim that Christians stating there is one God is insulting to the Bible?

Answer 8

I don't. I am a Christian, and in the Ten Commandments, God says, "I am a jealous God and you shall have no other Gods before me." I interpret that as they do exist, but they are inferior to my God.

Answer 9

Elohim can translate as "gods" or one god in the third or superlative degree of majesty.

Answer 10

you have mistranslated or mis understood. seriously, theres only one and the Bible says so.