In a friends divorce, she was granted the home until disabled son turned 18. She was to pay taxes, he was to pay land payment. He did not pay land payments and property went into foreclosure. His father went on the last possible day before the sale and paid property off. The land was originally purchased by his father, and deeded to him after the divorce proceeding (so the wife couldn't touch ownership). All paperwork sent in originally states her ex-husband was owner of property free and clear of any emcumberances. Within 4 weeks, his father was able to get deed to property from land board stating that he paid property off and it was his.....without signature from his son signing the property over to him. Land board allowed this, then ex-father in law evicted her off property. She was not staying there at the time due to disabled son being on hospice and needing to be close to his hospital.
Anyone have a logical explanation of how this might have happened??
2007-09-13 06:47:33 · 6 answers · asked by Tammi B 3 in Politics & Government ➔ Law & Ethics
Property belonged to her father-in-law originally. He gave property to son after divorce was final. Son did not pay on property that ex-wife was given residential rights to, property had not made it to final point of foreclosure. Father in law paid property off before property was foreclosed upon. That is like me getting to take your house when I paid it off at the last minute before the foreclosure was finalized.
2007-09-13 07:00:12 · update #1
Because when the land went into Foreclosure, your friend's husband no longer owned the land - the bank did. When his father payed for the land, the father then owned it.
2007-09-13 06:57:41 · answer #1 · answered by ? 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Because he bought the land out of foreclosure, he was given the property, and it was deeded to the father. At that point, he could do with what he wished. If he didn't want her there, he could legally evict her. Now, the court might grant your friend an ammendment to the divorce adding more child support.
2007-09-13 13:51:52 · answer #2 · answered by Allison P 4 · 2⤊ 0⤋
It is called not taking care of your responsibilites and paying your bills and taxes. When this happens, the law allows other/s to come in and take over those obligations and pay them. When property goes into any type of foreclosure, it is then sold to the person who has the money to buy it. The deed is then transfered to the person who paid the taxes or remaining mortage transferring ownership. If the person who owns the property owes any money not covered from the sale of the property to a mortage company or lending company, this person can be sued for the remaining owed.
2007-09-13 13:52:22 · answer #3 · answered by Sparkles 7 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Was there anything in the divorce decree about if the event the property was forclosed.. if not then there might not be anything she can do. Or if there is and the EX was finicanially responsible she could sue him, but of course that would cost to hire a laywer.
2007-09-13 14:01:35 · answer #4 · answered by c_leoo 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Sounds like he bought a property that was in foreclosure. He did not "pay it off", he bought it. If you believe illegal or improper actions were taken, you need a lawyer.
2007-09-13 13:53:09 · answer #5 · answered by davidmi711 7 · 0⤊ 1⤋
YES.....!
Welcome... to the Perverted LAW.... OF... MANKIND!
She can Always... APPEAL.....!
I am sure that there is Some Attorney out there... that will help Her.... Pro Bono!
Have her check with Legal AID!
Thanks, RR
2007-09-13 13:53:11 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 2⤋