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can some one please explain this?

2007-09-13 05:42:42 · 1 answers · asked by sh 1 in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

1 answers

Did you mean (n-a)^2?

If so, then (n-a)^2 = n^2 - 2an + a^2. Since both n^2 and -2an are multiples of n, they are congruent to 0 mod n. Therefore, all you have left is a^2.

Thus, (n-a)^2 = a^2 mod n.

2007-09-13 05:49:21 · answer #1 · answered by Mathsorcerer 7 · 2 0

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