Two cranes are lifting identical steel beams at the same time. One crane is putting twice as much power out as the other. Assuming frictions are negligible, what can you conclude is happening to explain this difference?
2007-09-12 16:56:36 · 3 answers · asked by corvetteracing 1 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Mathematics
With no friction and identical beams, if they were to be hoisted from the ground to the same elevation, then the same amount of work would be done by each. The only way one could be putting out twice as much power as the other would be if it was lifting two times as fast as the other. But in the end, the work done and energy expended would be equal. One just got there in half the time.
2007-09-12 17:09:51 · answer #1 · answered by Alan B 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
You said they are lifting identical steel beams. We do not know if the cranes are identical in their performance. Are they both lifting the weight in a similar manner? May be one is moving it vertically against gravity and another one is moving it horizontally. The motor efficiency and the operator experiences may be different. Driving and coasting may cause significant variations.
2007-09-16 17:02:13 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
The speed at which the crane is lifting the beam is more.
2007-09-12 18:32:33 · answer #3 · answered by Swamy 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋