Why did some people have the vote in 1815 and not others?

Question

in history i am studing about women and the vote but i don't get this y only some people had the vote and is it only women who had the vote in 1815?

i am from uk

come on people,
i need more details and more answers!

Answer 1

Before the Reform Act of 1832 the right to vote went with property. In some places, so called 'Rotten Boroughs' there might only have been a couple of voters. Voting was done in public not in secret and candidates could easily bribe the electorate. Paradoxically, the electoral reforms which extended the franchise and gave bigger new towns which had grown up with industrialisation members of parliament for the first time, actually made things worse for women's representation. This was because the vote now went to males occupying property with a particular rateable value. Previously, some landed estates or properties had a vote attached to them. In the rare cases where a woman had inherited this property, such as when a male aristocrat had no sons, she could control the vote. Although she could not actually cast her vote in person, she could nominate a man to vote as she directed.

I notice that your question refers to 1815 but at that time votes were based on landed property, based on a pre-industrial society. As industialisation meant some men grew rich from trade, manufacturing and mining, this was seen as a threat as higher wages in industry and the fall in land prices, grain and other foods after the end of the Napoleonic Wars meant land lost its value and the industrial rich could sometimes rival the rural hierarchy in influence although they had no vote. At the time the electoral system in use in 1815 had been created, the landed aristocracy were supreme and rich industrialists were not even thought of. As well as a growing middle class, there were some skilled craftsmen who wanted the vote too and hoped to be included in the Reform Act. The 1832 Act only included men of property and left out other groups. At that time the working class was still very small and so did not have any political power or union organisation to push for further reforms for many years. The reforms were not intended to bring democracy just to satisfy the most wealthy groups. Chartism became a campaigning force in the 1830s.

Answer 2

You don't say which country you refer to. But in the UK basically only the aristocracy and landed gentry had the vote in 1815. Many newly rich business men in the cities didn't even have a vote as their cities did not return MPs to Parliament. Certainly, women did not have the vote here until 1919. The disenfranchisement of so many people in the early 19th century led to a demand for reform. Unfortunately, when that came in 1832 it only addressed a few of the problems and many people felt cheated. certainly women did who, as I said, were to have to wait nearly a century.

Answer 3

Only white men that were usually wealthy landowners were given the right to vote until the 1870s, when the 14th Amendment was passed & black men were granted suffrage.

Women did not receive that right until 1920.

Just to be sure, I'm referring to American history, in case you're talking about England or Australia.

Answer 4

Thats because women did not have equal rights as men in those times, it was in around 1869 that women in Uk had right to vote in local elections.

And there are some countries which women are not allowed to vote still now.

Answer 5

well at that time blacks and women were not afforded the right to vote due to their place in society. the emancipation proclamation was not drafted until around 1862 and womens sufferage was not granted until around 1920. the reason for this? a white male dominated society. they were the only people allowed to vote at this time. blacks were still slaves in most states and women were housewives and mothers only. there was no other place for them in society (for the most part).

even when blacks were given the right to vote throught the fouteenth amandment, "jim crow laws" kept many of them from voting (like the grandfather clause which stated that you could only vote if your grandfather had voted in a previous election....obviously being slaves, many of their grandfathers were not allowed to vote, effectively barring them from doing so.)

Answer 6

Many ordinary folk could not vote because the law stated that 1: you had to be a man, and 2: you had to be a land owner.

Answer 7

originally only white males who were landowners were allowed to vote in the US

black males were allowed to vote after the civil war 1865, and women won the right to vote in the early 1900's

Answer 8

Only rich men,invariably titled, because the system assumed only they were responsible,educated,and intelligent