This is known as the Collatz conjecture (see http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Collatz_conjecture ). No proof for this conjecture has yet been discovered - if you find one, tell the field.
Oh, and PatsyAnn, showing that something works in one particular case does not constitute a proof that it works in all cases.
2007-09-11 15:25:31
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answer #1
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answered by Pascal 7
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1.) 1, 4, 2, 1
13.) 13, 40, 20, 10, 5, 16, 8, 4, 2, 1
22.) 22, 11, 34, 17, 52, 26, 13, 40, 20, 10, 5, 16, 8, 4, 2, 1
78.) 39, 118, 59, 178, 89, 268, 134, 67, 202, 101, 304, 152, 76, 38, 19, 58, 29, 88, 44, 22, 11, 34, 17, 52, 26, 13, 40, 20, 10, 5, 16, 8, 4, 2, 1
it all eventually leads to 1...EVENTUALLY
2007-09-11 21:41:11
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answer #2
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answered by moo 3
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Hey, Doc,
This is a "crummy" answer, but to the best of my "limited" mathematical knowledge, YES.
Final Answer (lol)
C-Ya,
Catnip
P.S. How's that "girl thing working out? Did you like my response?
2007-09-12 04:39:27
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answer #3
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answered by cc64bestyet 3
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100,50,25,75,76,38,1957,58,24,
12,6,3,9,10,5,15,16,8,4,2,1...!!!!
wow it even works for the long ones thanks man im gonna show my teacher thanks again thats kool
WAIT... I STARTED WITH 7 AND I
DID WHAT THE FORMULA IS AND
Y NUMBER GETS HIGHER AND
HIGHER...7.21.22.11.33.34.17.
1.62.31.93.94.47.141.142.71.213.
214.107.... so i think the formula
only works for even and odd but
not all the numbers????????
2007-09-11 21:39:02
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answer #4
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answered by paulzkool 2
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