For example Iowa law states ""a person shall not be intoxicated or simulate intoxication in a public place." Intoxicaton being " the state of being affected by one or more psychoactive drugs." Which is what is happening even if you consume a single beer, it will affect you given the makeup of alchohol even if that affect can only be measured in scietific analysis. If so, why does the state allow the restaurant to serve it at all? If a cop wanted would the state allow them to arbitraily pick a restaurant... arrest every person who consumes alcohol and take them down to the local jail and get strip searched (which is commonplace in most bookings)....All be it impractical, is it techincally legal...must people merely rely on the "good nature" of cops and lack of availibity of resources and manpower to avoid such treatement when having a budweiser at the local Applebees???
2007-09-11
07:57:42
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8 answers
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asked by
V for Vendetta
1
in
Politics & Government
➔ Law & Ethics