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show that p <--> q and ((p /\ q) \/ (~p /\ ~q)) are equal.

2007-09-11 02:09:02 · 3 answers · asked by Digital d 2 in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

3 answers

Just try it with all possible values for p and q - there's only four in total!

If it's true for all values then they are equal.

2007-09-11 02:22:14 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

difficulty with the 1st fact... if conservatives don't have intercourse as a results of fact they are in a position to't have the money for condoms, then why are the utmost aspects of youngster being pregnant in the rustic placed in the agricultural pink states? in basic terms curious... the version on the middle of the two logics is that liberal has a tendency to be greater desirous approximately communities and conservative has a tendency to be approximately me

2016-12-31 19:31:47 · answer #2 · answered by ? 3 · 0 0

((p /\ q) \/ (~p /\ ~q)
v is similar to addition
/\ is similiar to multiplication
~is not or negation

p-q-~p-~q-p/\q-~p /\ ~q-((p /\ q) \/ (~p /\ ~q))
1-1-0-0-1-0-1
1-0-0-1-0-0-0
0-1-1-0-0-0-0
0-0-1-1-0-1-1

last colon is p <--> q
Hence p <--> q and ((p /\ q) \/ (~p /\ ~q)) are equal.

2007-09-11 02:23:12 · answer #3 · answered by iyiogrenci 6 · 0 0

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